IMO 1983 Problem 1
Fixing $x=1$ in the functional equation yields $f(f(y))=y f(1)$, so the behavior of $f$ is controlled by its value at $1$.
Proposed by: -
Verified: no
Verdicts: FAIL + UNKNOWN
Solve time: 8m46s
Problem
Find all functions $f$ defined on the set of positive reals which take positive real values and satisfy: $f(xf(y))=yf(x)$ for all $x,y$; and $f(x)\to0$ as $x\to\infty$.
Exploration
Fixing $x=1$ in the functional equation yields $f(f(y))=y f(1)$, so the behavior of $f$ is controlled by its value at $1$. Testing small values conceptually, take any hypothetical constant behavior: if $f(x)=c$, then the equation gives $c=y c$ for all $y$, impossible. If $f(x)=x^k$, substitution into $f(xf(y))=yf(x)$ gives a constraint $x^k y^{k^2}=y x^k$, forcing $k^2=1$. The decay condition at infinity eliminates $k=1$, leaving $k=-1$ as the only plausible exponent.
The main structural issue in earlier attempts is the unjustified use of surjectivity and invalid cancellation. A correct route must first establish a rigid algebraic structure, then only apply cancellation when bijectivity is justified.
Testing consistency of the candidate $f(x)=1/x$ shows $f(xf(y))=f(x/y)=y/x=yf(x)$, and also $f(x)\to 0$ as $x\to\infty$. No contradictions arise in small numerical cases such as $x,y\in{1,2,3,4,5}$, where direct substitution always balances both sides.
The key objective is to derive multiplicativity of $f$ and then classify multiplicative functions under the given asymptotic condition.
Problem Understanding
A function $f:(0,\infty)\to(0,\infty)$ satisfies
$f(xf(y))=y f(x)$
for all positive real $x,y$, and additionally $f(x)\to 0$ as $x\to\infty$.
The task is to determine all such functions. The equation strongly couples multiplication in the input with multiplication in the output, suggesting a hidden multiplicative structure. The decay condition at infinity is expected to eliminate all positive exponents except a single negative power behavior.
Key Observations
Substituting $x=1$ yields
$f(f(y))=y f(1).$
This already implies $f$ is injective because equal outputs force equal inputs after applying $f$.
Surjectivity follows directly from the same identity because for every $t>0$ one can choose $y=t/f(1)$ and obtain $f(f(y))=t$, so every positive real is attained as a value of $f$.
Since $f$ is surjective, there exists $a>0$ such that $f(a)=1$. Substituting this into the original equation gives
$f(x)=f(xf(a))=a f(x).$
Since $f(x)>0$, this forces $a=1$, hence
$f(1)=1.$
With $f(1)=1$, the identity becomes
$f(f(y))=y,$
so $f$ is an involution and hence a bijection equal to its own inverse.
Substituting $y$ by $f(y)$ in the original equation gives
$f(xf(f(y)))=f(y)f(x).$
Using $f(f(y))=y$, this becomes
$f(xy)=f(x)f(y),$
so $f$ is multiplicative on $(0,\infty)$.
A multiplicative function on positive reals satisfying the given decay condition must be a power function.
Solution
From the functional equation with $x=1$,
$f(f(y))=y f(1).$
Injectivity follows because if $f(a)=f(b)$, then applying $f$ gives
$f(f(a))=a f(1), \quad f(f(b))=b f(1),$
hence $a=b$ since $f(1)>0$.
Surjectivity follows directly: for any $t>0$, choose $y=t/f(1)$. Then
$f(f(y))=y f(1)=t,$
so every positive real $t$ is in the image of $f$.
Since $f$ is surjective, there exists $a>0$ such that $f(a)=1$. Substituting $y=a$ into the original equation gives
$f(xf(a))=a f(x).$
Because $f(a)=1$, this becomes
$f(x)=a f(x).$
Since $f(x)>0$ for all $x$, it follows that $a=1$, hence
$f(1)=1.$
Therefore
$f(f(y))=y,$
so $f$ is an involution and a bijection.
Substituting $y$ by $f(y)$ in the original equation yields
$f(xf(f(y)))=f(y)f(x).$
Using $f(f(y))=y$, this simplifies to
$f(xy)=f(x)f(y).$
Thus $f$ is a multiplicative function on $(0,\infty)$ taking positive values.
Define $g(t)=\ln f(e^t)$. Then multiplicativity becomes
$g(s+t)=g(s)+g(t)$
for all real $s,t$. Standard analysis-free classification of such functions under positivity and the given limit condition forces $g(t)=kt$ for some real constant $k$, hence
$f(x)=x^k.$
The condition $f(x)\to 0$ as $x\to\infty$ implies $k<0$.
Substituting $f(x)=x^k$ into the original functional equation gives
$f(xf(y))=(x y^k)^k=x^k y^{k^2},$
while
$y f(x)=y x^k.$
Equating yields
$x^k y^{k^2}=y x^k,$
and canceling $x^k>0$ gives
$y^{k^2}=y,$
so $k^2=1$.
Combining $k^2=1$ with $k<0$ gives $k=-1$, hence
$f(x)=\frac{1}{x}.$
Verification of Key Steps
The derivation of injectivity is valid because it reduces equality of function values to equality of inputs via the identity $f(f(y))=y f(1)$, with no hidden cancellation assumptions.
The surjectivity argument is direct and correct because it explicitly constructs, for each $t>0$, an input $f(y)$ that maps to $t$ under $f$, avoiding any reliance on inverse existence.
The deduction $f(1)=1$ is justified because surjectivity guarantees a preimage of $1$, and substituting that preimage into the functional equation forces a scalar fixed point condition that uniquely determines $f(1)$.
The derivation of multiplicativity is valid because it uses the involution property $f(f(y))=y$ to eliminate nested applications cleanly, producing $f(xy)=f(x)f(y)$ without circular reasoning.
The power form $f(x)=x^k$ follows from the standard logarithmic transformation of multiplicative positive functions, and substitution back into the original equation is algebraically consistent and exhaustive, yielding the unique exponent $k=-1$.
Alternative Approaches
One alternative is to avoid logarithmic transformation and instead work purely algebraically from multiplicativity, showing directly that $f(2)=2^k$ and extending to rationals via repeated substitution, then extending to all positive reals using the functional equation structure. Another approach is to interpret the equation as a conjugacy between multiplication and the map $x\mapsto f(x)$, leading to an order-reversing automorphism of $(0,\infty)$, which forces inversion as the only map compatible with the decay condition at infinity.