TAOCP 1.2.8 Exercise 34

We prove existence and uniqueness separately.

Section 1.2.8: Fibonacci Numbers

Exercise 34. [M24] (The Fibonacci number system.) Let the notation $k \gg m$ mean that $k \ge m+2$. Show that every positive integer $n$ has a unique representation

$$ n = F_{k_1} + F_{k_2} + \cdots + F_{k_r}, $$

where $k_1 \gg k_2 \gg \cdots \gg k_r \gg 0$.

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Solution

We prove existence and uniqueness separately.

Define the relation $k \gg m$ by

$$ k \gg m \iff k \ge m+2. $$

Thus the condition

$$ k_1 \gg k_2 \gg \cdots \gg k_r \gg 0 $$

means

$$ k_1 \ge k_2+2,\quad k_2 \ge k_3+2,\quad \ldots,\quad k_r \ge 2. $$

We first establish the identity

$$ F_k = 1+\sum_{j=2}^{k-1} F_j \qquad (k\ge2). \tag{1} $$

For $k=2$, the right-hand side is $1$, equal to $F_2$.

Assume (1) holds for $k$. Then

$$ 1+\sum_{j=2}^{k}F_j = \left(1+\sum_{j=2}^{k-1}F_j\right)+F_k = F_k+F_k = 2F_k. $$

Since

$$ F_{k+1}=F_k+F_{k-1}, $$

and by (1),

$$ F_k = 1+\sum_{j=2}^{k-1}F_j = F_{k-1}+\sum_{j=2}^{k-2}F_j, $$

we obtain

$$ F_k-F_{k-1} = \sum_{j=2}^{k-2}F_j \ge0. $$

Hence

$$ 2F_k = F_{k+1}+\bigl(F_k-F_{k-1}\bigr). $$

Using (1) again,

$$ F_k-F_{k-1} = \sum_{j=2}^{k-2}F_j, $$

therefore

$$ 2F_k = F_{k+1}+\sum_{j=2}^{k-2}F_j = 1+\sum_{j=2}^{k}F_j. $$

Thus

$$ 1+\sum_{j=2}^{k}F_j=F_{k+1}, $$

and (1) follows by induction.

Now let

$$ S_k=\sum_{j=0}^{\lfloor (k-2)/2\rfloor}F_{k-2j}. $$

We claim that

$$ S_k=F_{k+1}-1. \tag{2} $$

The terms occurring in $S_k$ are precisely

$$ F_k,F_{k-2},F_{k-4},\ldots . $$

Using the recurrence repeatedly,

$$ F_{k+1} = F_k+F_{k-1} = F_k+F_{k-2}+F_{k-3} = F_k+F_{k-2}+F_{k-4}+F_{k-5} = \cdots . $$

Continuing until the indices reach $2$ or $1$, we obtain

$$ F_{k+1} = S_k+1, $$

since $F_2=1$ and $F_1=1$. Hence (2) holds.

We now prove existence by strong induction on $n$.

For $n=1$,

$$ 1=F_2, $$

and the representation satisfies the required conditions.

Assume that every positive integer less than $n$ has such a representation. Let $k$ be the largest integer such that

$$ F_k\le n. $$

Then

$$ F_k\le n<F_{k+1}. \tag{3} $$

Set

$$ m=n-F_k. $$

By (2),

$$ \sum_{j=0}^{\lfloor (k-3)/2\rfloor}F_{k-1-2j} = F_k-1. $$

Therefore every sum of Fibonacci numbers whose largest index is at most $k-1$ and whose indices differ by at least $2$ is at most $F_k-1$. Since $n<F_{k+1}=F_k+F_{k-1}$ by (3),

$$ m=n-F_k<F_{k-1}. \tag{4} $$

If $m=0$, then

$$ n=F_k $$

is already a valid representation.

Suppose $m>0$. By the induction hypothesis,

$$ m=F_{k_2}+\cdots+F_{k_r}, $$

where

$$ k_2 \gg k_3 \gg \cdots \gg k_r \gg 0. $$

Since $m<F_{k-1}$ by (4), the largest index in this representation satisfies

$$ k_2\le k-2. $$

Hence

$$ k\gg k_2. $$

Therefore

$$ n=F_k+F_{k_2}+\cdots+F_{k_r} $$

is a representation of the required form. Existence follows.

We now prove uniqueness.

Suppose

$$ n=F_{k_1}+F_{k_2}+\cdots+F_{k_r} = F_{\ell_1}+F_{\ell_2}+\cdots+F_{\ell_s}, $$

where

$$ k_1 \gg k_2 \gg \cdots \gg k_r \gg 0, $$

and

$$ \ell_1 \gg \ell_2 \gg \cdots \gg \ell_s \gg 0. $$

Assume, without loss of generality, that

$$ k_1<\ell_1. $$

Then

$$ k_1\le \ell_1-2. $$

Using (2),

$$ F_{k_1}+F_{k_2}+\cdots+F_{k_r} \le F_{k_1+1}-1. $$

Since $k_1+1\le \ell_1-1$,

$$ F_{k_1+1}-1<F_{\ell_1}. $$

Therefore

$$ n<F_{\ell_1}, $$

contradicting

$$ n\ge F_{\ell_1}. $$

Hence

$$ k_1=\ell_1. $$

Subtracting $F_{k_1}$ from both representations gives

$$ F_{k_2}+\cdots+F_{k_r} = F_{\ell_2}+\cdots+F_{\ell_s}. $$

Repeating the argument inductively yields

$$ k_i=\ell_i $$

for all $i$, and consequently $r=s$.

Thus the representation is unique.

This completes the proof.